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    • I have had a secondary thought.  I borrowed £s from a completely separate entity 6y ago. It was personal and unsecured. I was going to repay upon sale of the property. But then repo and I couldn't.  Eventually they applied and got a charging order on the property.  Their lawyers wrote that if I didn't repay they may apply for an order for sale.  I'm not in control of the sale.  The lender won't agree to an order for sale.  The judge won't expedite it/ extract from trial.  Someone here on cag may or may not suggest I can apply for an order v the receiver?  But could I alternatively ask this separate entity with a c.o to carry out their threat and actually make an application to court for an order for sale v the receiver instead?
    • You left the PCN number showing, but no worries, I've redacted it. Euro Car parks are very well known to us.  I've just skimmed through the titles of the latest 100 cases we have with them (I gave up after 100) and, despite all their bluster and threats, in not one have they taken the Cagger to court. You stayed there for 2 hours &:45 minutes.  I'm guessing the limit is 2 hours and 30 minutes, right?  
    • If the claimant fails to draft directions the court can order a Case Management Hearing to set them but normally in Fast Track claims the claimant sets the directions...Unlike small claims track which are always set the court.
    • Not Evris offer, the court offers mediation service.   All claims proceed to hearing if mediation fails /not happen.   Why do you not wish to attend in person to stand your claim ?     Absolutely you must comply with the courts directions or your claim risks being struck out. Preparation for a hearing should happen irrespective of mediation.   https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/460613-suing-a-parcel-delivery-company-when-you-dont-have-a-direct-contract-with-them-–-third-party-rights-copy-of-judgment-available/#comment-5255007   Andy  
    • LPA.  (I'm fighting insolvency due to all the stuff that he and lender have done).  He appointed estate agents - (changed several times). Disclosure shows he was originally appointed for a specific reason (3m after repo) : using his powers as acting for leaseholder to serve notice on freeholders (to grab fh).  There was interest from 3 potential buyers. He chose one whose offer depended on a positive result of the notice.  Disc also shows he'd taken counsel advice - which was 'he'd fail'.  He'd simultaneously asked to resign as his job (of serving notice) was done and he'd found a buyer.  Lender asked him to stay on to assign notice to the buyer.  Notice failed, buyer didn't buy.  So receiver stayed.  There was 1 buyer who wanted to proceed w/o fh but receiver/ lender wasted 1y trying to get rid of them!  Disc shows why. But I didn't know why at the time. In later months Lender voiced getting rid of receiver. Various reasons - including cost.  But there's a contradiction/ irony: as I've seen an email (of 4y ago) which shows the receiver telling lender not to incur significant costs and to minimize receiver costs.    Yet lender then asked him to serve another notice - again counsel advice indicated 'he'd fail'.  And he did fail.  But wasted 3y trying and incurred huge legal costs - lender trying to pass on to me. Lender interfered - said wanted to do works.  Receiver should have said no.  But disc. shows he agreed to step aside to let them do the works - on proviso lender would discuss potential costs first (they didn't), works wouldn't take long (took 15m), and lender would hold interest (they didn't) (this last point is crucial for me now - as I need to know if I can argue that all interest beyond this point shouldnt be allowed?)   I need to check receiver witness statement in litigation with freeholders to see exactly what he said about 'his position'. But I remember it being along the lines of - 'if the works increased the value of the property he didn't have a problem'.  Lender/ receiver real problems started at this point. The cost of works and 4y passage of time has meant there is no real increase in value. Lender (or receiver) didn't get any permissions (statutory or fh) (and didn't tell me) and just bulldozed the property to an empty shell.  The freeholders served notice on me as leaseholder for breach of covenants (strict no alterations).  The Lender stepped in (acting for me) to issue notice for relief of forfeiture - not the receiver.  That wasted 2y of litigation (3y if inc the works) and incurred huge costs (both sides).  Lender's aim was to do the works that every potential buyer balked at due to the lease restrictions.  Lender and receiver knew couldn't do works w/o fh permission. Lender did them anyway; receiver allowed.  Receiver remained appointed.  I'm arguing lender interfered in receiver duties.  Receiver should have just sold property 4-5y ago w/o allowing any works.  Almost 3y since works finished the property remains unsold (>5y from repo). The property looks brand new - but it was great before.  The lender spent a ton of money - hoping that would facilitate a quick sale.  But the money they spent and the years they have wasted has meant they had to increase sale price.  It's now completely overpriced.  And - of course - the same issues that put buyers off (before works) still exist.   The receiver has tried for 2y to assert the works increased value. But he is relying on agents estimates - which have proved highly speculative. (Usual trick of an agent to give a high value to get the business - and then tell seller to reduce when no-one buys.). And of course lender continues to accrue interest (despite 4y ago receiver saying pause interest). Lender tried to persuade receiver to use specific agent. Disc shows this agent was best friends with the lender's main investor in the property.  Before works this agent had valued it low.  After works this agent suggested a value 70% higher!  The lender persuaded receiver to sack one agent and instead use this agent.  No offers. (Price way too high).   Research has uncovered that this main investor has since died.  I guess his investment is part of probate? And his family want it back?    Disc shows the sacked agent had actually received a high offer 1y ago.  Receiver rejected it.  (thus I don't know if the buyer would have ever proceeded). He was relying on the high speculative valuation the agents had given him to pitch for the business. The agents were in a catch-22.  The receiver sacked them. Disc shows there has been 0 interest ever since (inc via new agent requested by lender). I don't think lender or receiver want all this to come out in public domain via a trial.  It will ruin their reputations. If I can't get an order for sale with lender - can I apply separately against receiver?
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Overnight stays on company business.


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Good Friday Ladies and gentlemen,

A couple of wee ago I was aked to go to see a machine on another site (the site in question is the company who are manufacturing the machine for my employers, not otherwise connected to my employers) As this was a good distance away, my employers booked a hotel room for one night for myself and three colleagues (they are salaried, whereas I am paid by the hour, weekly) We left at 5pm on a Sunday and didn't return until 10pm on the Monday. At the moment my hours are 8-4:30 Monday to Friday.

I questioned whether I should receive pay for the time away from home, but all my employers have said is that I could have an afternoon off in lieu.

Personally, I do not feel this is fair but as the employee, I would feel that way.

I don't expect to be paid for 24 hours, but do think the five hours from 5-10pm both days should be paid as I was off site, away from home (during school holidays!) and on company business.

Could anyone offer advice as to how this stands legally, ideally with detail of what I should quote?

If they are absolutely, legally, right then that is as it is and I wouldn't expect them to do any more.

S.A.R - (Subject Access Request)-13th September 2006

Prelim-12th October 2006

Offer recieved-22nd October

LBA-27th October2006 (busy times in the wijit household!(hence the delay)

Full amount offered 03/11/06

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Not a legal answer but what I would say is that an afternoon off in lieu is a bargain for staying away for 24hrs.

 

At present I get 0.5day's holiday for every WEEK I work away.

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I don't think you have any legal recourse here. I wouldn't get paid, or any time off in lieu, for staying away overnight - sometimes, it just goes with the job.

 

Check your contract - unless it states you will be paid for time away, I don't think there's much you can do - also check the overtime policy.

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Good afternoon all.

Thank you for your replies, they are much appreciated even if they don't give me an answer I was hoping for.

For clarification, and background;

As it is, I normally work shifts of 12 hours (2 on, 2 off, 3 on, 2 off, 2 on, 3 off) all 7am-7pm. Those are my contraced hours. However, I have been taken off those for project work and am currently doing 8-4:30, no weekends.

We travelled to the other place at 5pm on the Sunday and arrived at approximately 8pm.

7:30 am we set off for the other company, arriving there at approximately 8am and left at around 7pm arriving back at my place of employment at 10pm on the Monday night.

I did not ask, nor volunteer for any of the above, especially as the shifts I normally do are quite favourable in school holidays.

As for being paid for 8-4:30 on the Monday, surely that should be a given, as I was working in any case during that time? It is the time outside of those hours which has caused considerable inconvenience (not to mention unsettling domestic silence!).

My contract doesn't even mention going away, as my job is solely on the factory floor. If I am operating a machine at work, I have no need to be going anywhere overnight.

S.A.R - (Subject Access Request)-13th September 2006

Prelim-12th October 2006

Offer recieved-22nd October

LBA-27th October2006 (busy times in the wijit household!(hence the delay)

Full amount offered 03/11/06

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Well my first question would be how many hours travelling? I would look to get this back and nothing else. But as you have mentioned there were two other salaried people who done the same what did they get extra or in Lieu? This is what I would say you would be a bargaining point as such and not by law. Again as mentioned you will need to look at your contract as therein would be the answer.

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Good afternoon transient, my other colleagues are salaried, but I am not. Only one of them took the time off in lieu, I don't know what the other did but the third one, I have just found out, is actually self-employed and so he invoices the company for his time.

S.A.R - (Subject Access Request)-13th September 2006

Prelim-12th October 2006

Offer recieved-22nd October

LBA-27th October2006 (busy times in the wijit household!(hence the delay)

Full amount offered 03/11/06

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I should also mention that my contract is quite vague as it is more implied than formal.

S.A.R - (Subject Access Request)-13th September 2006

Prelim-12th October 2006

Offer recieved-22nd October

LBA-27th October2006 (busy times in the wijit household!(hence the delay)

Full amount offered 03/11/06

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Just seen you posted at the same time. As far as I can see it you have spent 8 hours outside your normal remit. I would also expect that although your contract does not mention going away there will be a clause stating you could be reassigned as the business sees fit or along those lines.

 

I would say take the afternoon off in lieu and let it lie. Just out of interest what did the salaried people get in return?

 

Good afternoon transient, my other colleagues are salaried, but I am not. Only one of them took the time off in lieu, I don't know what the other did but the third one, I have just found out, is actually self-employed and so he invoices the company for his time.

 

In that case I would take it as said. I am self employed and do not invoice for travel, i expect it, I currently travel 2 hours a day there and back. You are also not privy to what the 3rd party actually invoiced. I would suspect he put in the normal hours and claimed back the extra subsistence rates HMRC give him for a longer day/overnight stay this would come close to alleviating the extra

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Did you say "no thanks" to the trip?

 

If you like doing different things like site visits sometimes you need to put up with a bit if grief.

 

If you were my employee and made a fuss I'd

a) make sure you never got anything interesting to do

b) mark you down as a jobsworth

c) be less flexible about change of shifts for doctors, nativity plays, whatever.

 

You may get no flex from your employer at all, of course.

 

Whether that would bother you, I don't know, but it's where my head would be going. Employees complain they don't get involved in stuff and then when they do get a chance work it out to the last shilling. Makes you not want to bother.

 

I am NOT saying that is you, I am just giving you a different persepctive. And your domestics are not the employers problem either!

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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Did you say "no thanks" to the trip?

 

If you like doing different things like site visits sometimes you need to put up with a bit if grief.

 

If you were my employee and made a fuss I'd

a) make sure you never got anything interesting to do

b) mark you down as a jobsworth

c) be less flexible about change of shifts for doctors, nativity plays, whatever.

 

You may get no flex from your employer at all, of course.

 

Whether that would bother you, I don't know, but it's where my head would be going. Employees complain they don't get involved in stuff and then when they do get a chance work it out to the last shilling. Makes you not want to bother.

 

I am NOT saying that is you, I am just giving you a different persepctive. And your domestics are not the employers problem either!

Would have to agree here too. In them asking you and you are not salaried it shows they value you and I wouldnt rock that boat
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Something else to consider is that *working time* is defined as 'periods when you are working at your employer's disposal and carrying out your employer's activities or duties'.

 

Travelling time would count as working time if you were visiting clients on your employer's behalf. e.g. sales rep.

However, travelling to an occasional meeting etc. would not count as working time.

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Good afternoon all, thanks once again for the replies.

Whilst not forced to go, I wasn't given too much of a choice. So far as the flexibility goes, more than once I have gone above and beyond. My only issue really is the time away from home. I had been expecting to be back by 5 pm on Monday but the visit lasted far longer than had been planned. Generally, it is not a bad place to work, but there are definite differences between how salaried staff are treated and how non-salaried staff are.

I had said I would rather not go, but would if they really needed me to, which they said they did.

I can see perfectly how they view it, but that doesn't alter the fact that I was doing their work, and in order to do that I had to travel a distance during time I was not due to be at work.

S.A.R - (Subject Access Request)-13th September 2006

Prelim-12th October 2006

Offer recieved-22nd October

LBA-27th October2006 (busy times in the wijit household!(hence the delay)

Full amount offered 03/11/06

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I understand how you feel but think it's probably best to let it lie this time.

 

Have a little speech ready for if you are asked to go away again in future.

Maybe something along the lines of: 'I'd rather not go because the last time I was away for about 29 hours, including part of my weekend off, and the only additional compensation was an afternoon off in lieu.'

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