I hope someone can help me with this,

I received 4 council tax bills this week for an old address that I moved out of in 2006. For financial year 02/03, 03/04, 04/05 and 05/06 I apparently owe £4670! The bills say that they are already subject to recovery and should be paid as previously notified.

Although the bill is in my name I shared the flat with 3 other people. I was sure that my flatmates and I kept up to date with the CT but when I phoned the council they only had a couple of payments on their system and suggested that we check our records. The guy who paid it through his account contacted his bank and they told him that they don't keep records that far back for data protection so we have no proof that it was paid and I have no records of the money I gave him. It seems like it would be our word against theirs.

What I don't understand is that if we hadn't paid almost anything for 4 financial years, why the council didn't get heavy with us at the time. And I've been a resident in the same council since I moved out. Surely it wouldn't have been that hard to track me down.

I've had a look on some of the forums and have read different things. Some say that after 6 years the debt is written off, some say it's after 12 years and some say CT is never written off. Needless to say I'm worried and confused, can anyone shed some light on my rights in this situation?

Hi Lou

Welcome to CAG

The guys will advise as soon as they are available.

We had a property reposessed in 2002 (long story, still ongoing litigation, one for the forum in future). The Council did not contact us until 2009 through debt collectors. Went to a solicitor who tried very hard to sort it out, also National Debt Helpline. National Debt Helpline advised that the claim would never be out of date, basically it follows you like a fine as the council had obtained a liability order in our absence! The answer was, sorry to tell you, that we had to pay. Don't despair I negotiated a very small repayment over a number of years. In your case surely all of you should get together, expect you know this.hope someone can advise differently and I'll claim our money back!

Thanks terriersaregreat. Was it a CT debt?

The thing is that we payed it, just have no way of proving it it seems. I don't want to have to pay it again, no matter how small the installments.

Also, one of the guys is from the states. I could track him down and ask him to pay but I can tell you now what his answer will be!

Yes, it was a CT debt for the period before the repossession. Part of the time claimed we were in receipt of Income Support but Council said we hadn't informed them. I think I did. Have you been to talk to the Council? Did you pay cash? Can you remember the dates approx. I'm going back to the Council now that I've paid the amount that was due but not the amount when we were in receipt of IS. I will keep paying but make it plain to the council that what they did in obtaining a liability order when they were fully aware that we had been evicted was wrong. If no luck :|I'm going to the Local Government Ombudsman.

Acts, statutes & regulational legal frameworks are not LAWS in themselves, there is not a law on this land that says any man or woman has to pay council tax (please provide your proof that there is if I'm wrong!!!!) Acts, Statutory legislation and regulations can only be given the force of law upon the consent of the governed!

Statutory instruments are used to generate a revenue stream upon charge of liability if the person (title) is represented by the human (man or woman)thus giving joinder by signature to the title and address the paperwork is addressed too, this is how legal consent is gained!

A company (local tax office)cannot contract with a human as the status is deemed unequal and the contract is therefor invalid in LAW!!!!!

This is a great example of law of the sea being forced on dry land, nothing more, nothing less, if there is no contract then there cannot be a liability to pay as no contract has been broken, no loss has been recorded or proved and any company cannot lawfully swindle money from a human (only the title that is reprisented by a man or woman ie...MR JOE BLOGS in black capital letters)and if does so can be prosecuted in a court of law under full commercial liability and if a magistrate tries to swindle by trying to gain joinder in court without this proof they too can be compelled to a court of law under perjury if they have not sworn an oath to her majesty The Queen II as the magistrate would not be "ACTing" under common law jurisdiction and thus has no recourse in a court of law.

I will Pm you the link for the source if you require it as I have less than 20 posts I am not able to post the link..