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    • LPA.  (I'm fighting insolvency due to all the stuff that he and lender have done).  He appointed estate agents - (changed several times). Disclosure shows he was originally appointed for a specific reason (3m after repo) : using his powers as acting for leaseholder to serve notice on freeholders (to grab fh).  There was interest from 3 potential buyers. He chose one whose offer depended on a positive result of the notice.  Disc also shows he'd taken counsel advice - which was 'he'd fail'.  Irrespective he'd asked to resign as his job (of serving notice) was done and he'd found a buyer.  Lender asked him to stay on to assign notice to the buyer.  Notice failed, buyer didn't buy.  So receiver stayed.  There was 1 buyer who wanted to proceed w/o fh but receiver/ lender wasted 1y trying to get rid of them!  Disc shows why. But I didn't know why at the time. Lender voiced getting rid of receiver. Various reasons - including cost.  But there's a contradiction/ irony: as I've seen an email (of 4y ago) which shows the receiver telling lender not to incur significant costs and to minimize receiver costs.  Yet lender then asked him to serve another notice - again counsel advice indicated 'he'd fail'.  And he did fail.  But wasted 3y trying and incurred huge legal costs - lender trying to pass on to me. Lender interfered - said wanted to do works.  Receiver should have said no.  But disc. shows he agreed to step aside to let them do the works - on proviso lender would discuss potential costs first (they didn't), works wouldn't take long (took 15m), and lender would hold interest (they didn't) (this last point is crucial for me now - as I need to know if I can argue that all interest beyond this point shouldnt be allowed?)   I need to check receiver witness statement in litigation with freeholders to see exactly what he said about 'his position'. But I remember it being along the lines of - 'if the works increased the value of the property he didn't have a problem'.  Lender/ receiver real problems started at this point. The cost of works and 4y passage of time has meant there is no real increase in value. Lender (or receiver) didn't get any permissions (statutory or fh) (and didn't tell me) and just bulldozed the property to an empty shell.  The freeholders served notice on me as leaseholder for breach of covenants (strict no alterations).  The Lender stepped in (acting for me) to issue notice for relief of forfeiture - not the receiver.  That wasted 2y of litigation (3y if inc the works) and incurred huge costs (both sides).  Lender's aim was to do the works that every potential buyer balked at due to the lease restrictions.  Lender and receiver knew couldn't do works w/o fh permission. Lender did them anyway; receiver allowed.  Receiver remained appointed.  I'm arguing lender interfered in receiver duties.  Receiver should have just sold property 4-5y ago w/o allowing any works.  Almost 3y since works finished the property remains unsold (>5y from repo). The property looks brand new - but it was great before.  The lender spent a ton of money - hoping that would facilitate a quick sale.  But the money they spent and the years they have wasted has meant they had to increase sale price.  It's now completely overpriced.  And - of course - the same issues that put buyers off (before works) still exist.   The receiver has tried for 2y to assert the works increased value. But he is relying on agents estimates - which have proved highly speculative. (Usual trick of an agent to give a high value to get the business - and then tell seller to reduce when no-one buys.). And of course lender continues to accrue interest (despite 4y ago receiver saying pause interest). Lender tried to persuade receiver to use specific agent. Disc shows this agent was best friends with the lender's main investor in the property.  Before works this agent had valued it low.  After works this agent suggested a value 70% higher!  The lender persuaded receiver to sack one agent and instead use this agent.  No offers. (Price way too high).   Research has uncovered that this main investor has since died.  I guess his investment is part of probate? And his family want it back?    Disc shows the sacked agent had actually received a high offer 1y ago.  Receiver rejected it.  He was relying on the high speculative valuation the agents had given him to pitch for the business. The agents were in a catch-22.  The receiver sacked them. Disc shows there has been 0 interest ever since. I don't think lender or receiver want all this to come out in public domain via a trial.  It will ruin their reputations. If I can't get an order for sale with lender - can I apply separately against receiver?
    • Ok many thanks. Just wanted to check that nothing else for us to do / send for the moment. Will update again once we receive a copy of their N181 and proposed directions for review. Our post is a bit hit and miss at the moment. Appreciate the help through this process.
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    • Torys seem to think its worth while - cheap muckspreading while they get away with ACTUALLY doing it? More the aspect of ensuring that when these tactics are used without justification - make sure your people aren't doing it more and worse or their crap spread on the waters ... - mind you, the Tories would have to maybe even ease off on their using taxpayer and donor money to fund their preferred lifestyles wouldn't they? Maybe even do the jobs they are paid for?  
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Help - re-mortgage application declined due to adverse credit on experian file***RESOLVED***


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Hi there

 

I need some urgent help! I have just been turned down for a re-mortgage today and it has cost me £150. I have been been advised that an adverse payment arrangement is showing on my credit search. They use Experian. The broker did a credit search prior to me sending in the application, discussed my application with a bank rep and I had an offer in principle. He even advised me that the bank wanted me to include some existing credit on my cards in order to proceed with them, so what could have happened?

 

I do have 1 payment arrangement paying a token £1.00 to DCA, but this arrangement has been ongoing for many years and should not show on my credit report as default is 9 years old. I am also dealing with a court claim from Link financial since June 10 for a debt 13 years old, which I am disputing in full as I do not have any particulars of the claim. Could they have made an entry for a 13 year defaulted account?

 

Whatever it is, it certainly wasnt on my CRA until recently, as I have re-mortgaged, applied for a credit card and changed banks in the last 3 years. I dont have any other payment arrangement. I have re-joined Experian today for an on line credit report, but need to wait for security clearance which can take up to 48 hours. (So much for it being instant) I know I need to check what is on my file, but can anyone advise me what should be my next step and do I have a right to refuse to pay the £150 as a credit check was made by the broker and discussed with the bank prior to him telling me I had an offer in principle and then me completing the application form. £150 is required within 7 days.

 

Can anyone advise? :(

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From what i can find out the £150 is only due if you pull out of the deal (finding a cheaper mortguage) and was bought in to protect both sides.

I have found this statement from the woolwich.

 

"People who apply for a mortgage with the Woolwich and then pull out part way through the process are to be charged a £150 fee."

The Woolwich added that only those who decide not to take out a mortgage with the group, despite having been accepted, and those who have an application rejected because they have given false information will have to pay the fee.

People who are rejected for a mortgage by the Woolwich due to affordability concerns will not be liable for the charge."

You may have to look in to the terms set down by the specific bank from their own website.

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Hi Iccarus, it was the Woolwich and I didnt pull out. Any chance I could get a link to that info please? The letter states I will be charged £150 'withdrawal fee' and this will be taken from my credit/debit card within 7 days. There was no application fee and I havent given them my card security details to take any payment. The notes in the Brokers illustration says some of the above terms and conditions, but not the one about affordability. It also states that its payable when you have not disclosed any relevant material facts relating to your application.

 

I have no knowledge of what is on the credit file, so I cant see what I could disclose as material. They told me they did a credit search and found adverse data sending me contact details for Experian. Are they suggesting Ive given them false information? The bank and the Broker had a discussion before the offer in principle. I really dont know whats happened.

Edited by SF2010
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sure here is the link to where i got the quotes from http://www.clickoncredit.co.uk/newsArchive/Mortgagewithdrawalfeeintroduced.html

 

Ive also found there mortgage lending criteria on http://www.mortgages-direct-uk.com/woolwich.htm

which gives outlines on what they will accept.

 

I hope this helps

 

Paul

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Also Adverse credit info could be anything from applying to too many financial institutions in the last 6 months or late credit card payment in last 6 months

 

The best way is just wait and see what experian have to say, to see what this adverse check the details on your credit report and also verify that their is no major differences in the electorial roll and other financial outgoings to what was in the application.

 

If there is nothing obvious .Does the remortgage application decline letter specify why your declined and if it doesent can you find the reason from the bank and check if it ties up with your credit report.

 

If it is because of either of the two items you stated earlier ,it might be worth while to add a note explaining your token payments. The ccj should not show as it is over 6 years old

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Hi Iccarus

 

Ive looked at the letter again and they mention credit scoring as the reason. Though I called yesterday and the lady I spoke to said its because there is a adverse payment plan in place but she didnt say for what. If it was adverse shouldnt it say that in the letter? She was not very easy to understand, so Im wondering if I misheard her. I know she definetly mentioned a payment plan being the reason. Doesnt explaining token payments for an old debt still count against you as much as a CCJ would? Anyway, I'll be wiser when I see the report and check it. I should get to speak to the Broker tommorow too.

 

Thanks so much for your advice.

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Under normal circumstanses it doesent

The ccj is over 6 years and should not show on your credit file as it may be statute barred.(worthwile checking)

From the information youve given me you are still making payments, even though nominal for an old debt which will read as active on your credit report. This may put up your adverse payment plan and go against you as long as it is there.

 

It may be worth while to approach the original company and check if that debt has been written off especially if you are paying the third party as you are paying your £1 a week it may be the reason you cant get a mortgage.

 

It may also be prudent to add a note to your credit file explaining why your paying this account in such a way. As this could go in your favour on credit referals in the future.

 

Paul

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Hi Iccarus

 

I do think its the £1 token payments which has gone against me. I recently noticed that I get statements from the OC showing payments made and the outstanding balance. So they havent written it off. I called the OC on Saturday, but they said if there's anything on the file it would have been placed there by the DCA and I should contact them. I will be able to confirm this on the credit report by tomorrow.

 

If thats the case I will lose my home as I am stuggling to keep up with the mortgage at that % and needed to move to a better deal to ease the pressure. The bank BR is 5.99% which is scandalous, its the same % as my fixed rate which will end in October.

 

Im not sure what my note should say as I would imagine it will still go against me whatever I say.

 

Regards

 

SF

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Iccarus

 

In this case and given the terms and conditions which Woolwhich have published, would you say I am considered to have given false information as I didnt give them those details. I didnt even think about it as the account is so old. I cant afford to pay them £150. I was remortgaging and specifically looked for a deal which I didnt have any upfront bills to pay as I didnt have the money.

 

Thanks again, youve been a wonderful help, but Im really panicking. Things just seem to be snowballing and all this was thought to be behind me when I was just tarting out in life, young and not understanding the level of responsibililty I was trying to take on.

 

SF2010

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The first thing to do is not panic.

 

Its best to make sure what this adverse credit is on your file, and go on from there

If it is what you state Check the status on this and see when the last time it was updated by the dca.

 

I would also check with the broker to see what specific reason they are charging the £150. As you havent pulled out they did and you were happy to continue with the arrangement.

 

Also try and find out if their is a way to continue with the arrangement or postpone it as you need to find out what this adverse credit is on your credit file. (this should also postpone the £150)

 

If they refuse.

You need to state under their terms and conditions,"People who are rejected for a mortgage by the Woolwich due to affordability concerns will not be liable for the charge." as the application was declined by themselves you should not be liable.

 

If they agree.

Dependant on what you find on your credit report Explain the situation. If it is the 13 yr old debt that is at fault it should not show on your credit report as clarified by the OC and should not effect their decision making process

 

 

Hope this helps.

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Thanks Iccarus

 

I followed your advice and the Broker has agreed to cover the cost of the withdrawal fee if they insist it is paid. Im not sure why my credit report is so delayed, but I still havent got access to the instant online report! So much for it being instant. Im checking if its available today, but if not Im cancelling and will send my £2 in the post. I do have some time to sort this out now.

 

Thank you so much for all of your help!

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Well thats good news and at least your not out of pocket even though your back to square one.

Im not sure about experian as I generally use equifax for my personal online credit checks and as far as i can remember its instant but ive been with them for a number of years.

 

Im glad I could be of help

 

Paul

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Good result, SF2010 and Paul, Title changed.

Any advice I give is honest and in good faith.:)

If in doubt, you should seek the opinion of a Qualified Professional.

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Help keep it up and active, helping people like you.

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