Hi everyone
Even though this query relates to PPI applied to loans serviced by my current account for which I already have a thread on the go, I want to keep this aspect separate so have started a new thread.
Over the years we have had several loans with PPI all serviced by our
ltsb
current account. These were all sold to us on the pretext that we had to have the PPI in order for our loan applications to be approved.
That current account (which has not been in use for a year) has an outstanding
overdraft
balance for which we are being pursued by a
DCA
. The o/d consists entirely of charges for which there is a claim stayed in the court system.
My query is this -
If the PPI had never been applied to those loans and our loan repayments had subsequently been lower, many of the
direct debit
payments which were unable to be met due to lack of funds would have been made and this in turn would have prevented the charges being applied in the first place.
For example, say we had paid £3000 in PPI premiums and currently our o/d balance stood at £3000, it could be argued that if we had never been forced to take the PPI we would be £3000 better off and would not now have a £3000 o/d. That's without taking into account the previously mentioned charges...........
So what I'm wondering, now that the
fos
have managed to get the bank to admit several of these PPIs were mis-sold (although with no admission of liability and the offers are not yet what they should be), it would be possible to use this argument as a case for why the o/d balance being demanded by the DCA is incorrect?
Any thoughts or advice on this would be most welcome please
Many thanks,
Landy x