Just thinking aloud...

but where in consumer credit legislation does it actually say that a late payment or overlimit fee can be charged to a credit account by a creditor, and that those charges can accrue interesticon?

My thinking is along the lines of the creditor says we will charge if such and such, but nowhere does it actually say anything about intent to/consent to put the charge on the actual credit account. It only says you will be charged. Is this not grounds to challenge charges incurred, particularly in the case of restricted use credit agreements?

Clear as mud? Ok, imagine a debtor is given a restricted use loan for the purpose of buying a car. 6 months down the line, said debtor is late with a payment and the creditor charges a late payment fee to the account, effectively giving the debtor extra credit. But the purpose of the loan was to buy a car...