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    • The argument about the date of receipt is now dead because the PCN  does not comply with the wording  of the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 Schedule 4.  First reason Section 9 [2] [e]  "state that the creditor does not know both the name of the driver and a current address for service for the driver and invite the keeper—(i)to pay the unpaid parking charges;" Second Reason Section 9 [2][a] "specify the vehicle, the relevant land on which it was parked and the period of parking to which the notice relates;" All your PCN does is mark the time you entered and left the car park. It does not include all the myriad things you do in between-driving into the car park, looking for a parking space-perhaps a disabled space or  parent and Child place@ getting the children or disabled person out of the car then going shopping. Coming back; loading the car with shopping [, getting the children or disabled into the car, taking the trolley back to the store; driving to the exit perhaps stopping to let vehicles/pedestrians cross in front of you etc. so subtracting the driving times from before and after parking can make quite a difference from their time to the actual period parking time. So the upshot is now that only the driver is responsible for paying the PCN and the keeper is not liable at all even if the name of the driver is never known by Nexus so well done for not appealing. You obviously want to keep it that way to make it very difficult for them to win in Court if it ever goes that far. Although your question is now moot since  the same objective has been achieved by the non compliant PCN [ie no keeper liability] just  about the only way to dispute the timing of the PCN would be if one kept the envelope and there was a discernible date stamp on it that did not match the date on the PCN. There is a new Act coming out [and it cannot come quickly enough ] and one of the things required is that parking companies will have to prove the date of sending out their PCNs. We are not the only ones who sometimes doubt the veracity of their dates particularly as the later it is sent [unlawfully] the shorter the period motorists have to benefit [?] from the reduced payment. I haven't seen it on your posts but do you know how long you are permitted to park for free?
    • I was so annoyed and frustrated about the fact this case was lost it's been floating around my head all night. Dave962, are you sure that's what the Judge said? .... It doesn't make sense. Did the judge in fact dismiss the case on the grounds that the defendant did not make an appeal within 28 days? Effectively telling the PPC about the error entering the registration number and providing proof of payment at that time? To me, that's an important point.  
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    • good spot...though i'm unsure, but it does seem like it can't be related to this latest issue as the OP mentions she knew nothing about the  order. dx  
    • wasn't that for the CCJ for the mental capacity with the leaseholder?   SO would be different to this.
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Can freehold residents challenge estate service charges?


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Hello All

 

1st time here, wondered if anyone has experience of the following.

 

We (and the majority of residents on the estate) are freehold houses, there are a few apartments on the estate I believe are leasehold. The management company has sent through the latest budget for 2009, and the again the costs have increased significantly.

 

The house was sold by the developer on the basis that the service charge would be £125 for the 1st year. A management company is employed to look after gardening of communal areas, communal electricity (roads not adopted yet or for at least another 2yrs), general repairs, a managing agent fee, accountancy fee, company secretary fee.

 

All this seems reasonable at £125. In 2008 it went up to £185, and for 2009 it moves to £215! And then because there was a shortfall from 2007, they charged a further £50 recently.

 

The gripe among many of the freehold residents is that the biggest cost of grounds maintenance (approx 1/2 of the total estate charge) is that the road is nowhere near where the communal area is, and we have to maintain our own gardens directly outside our houses) and a small area that the gardeners were supposed to look after was neglected for over 12 months because the landlord (the building developer) alledgedly didn't inform the management company it needed doing. Also, the management company claim it also covers repairs to "private" road, which conflicts with the council, who say that if a road is planned to be adopted, which it is, the landlord must pay for maintenance as oppose to the resident.

 

I appreciate costs will increase over time, but this is hugely above an inflationary increase, and the overall cost seems excessive for the frequency and quality of gardening (that we don't see), but as freehold, I understand we can't easily challenge the costs through leasehold valuation tribunal.

 

Any ideas anybody?

 

Thanks!

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Ok, had a look, their are a number of subsections:

 

Transferees covenants in favour of the transferor and the development

Transferees further covenants

Covenants by the transferor

Covenants by the Management Company

Covenants by the Transferee in favour of the management company and the transferor

And then a section regarding maintenance expenses

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Think it's the section on maintenance expenses that you need to concentrate. If the management company have done their homework, I suspect they can pretty well make any 'reasonable' charge for maintenance. Unfortunately, there never seems to be any definition of what is reasonable.

 

How about forming a resident's association and inviting the management people along so that they can explain everything - and you can have a go back at them?

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  • 4 years later...

You could try arguing that the contract is not a fair & reasonable one. What surprises me is that you are a Freeholder. Here's a Q. for you. Does it state within the Title Deeds, words to the effect Fee Simple as being yours? (fee simple is your right to pass on to your heirs your home). The reason I'm asking is that if so then once the Mortgage is redeemed the Property is yours in accordance with a shed load of old Acts which have yet to be repealed. Hope this helps.

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This is an old thread bellijayne. As its not been posted on for over 4 years I would think the problems been resolved, or at least moved on.

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