Hi Everyone - I am a newbie to this site.
I had a FirstPlus loan (Joint) which we entered into in 2004/2005. Shortly afterwards we put our house up for sale we got an offer for it, but we had to move into rented accommodation because we had no where else to go. We made £17K profit on the sale of our house and we were going to use that money to pay of some other debts and a deposit on a new property.
FirstPlus told us that since we sold our property and had not yet found a new one, our loan was therefore unsecure and they demanded that we paid in full. We assured them that we would be purchasing a new house with the profit we had made on the sale of our old place. When they discovered that we made £17K they made us sign an affidavit for the money to be held with our Solicitor until the sale of the property went through.
After the sale of our house, the money (all £17K) was released to FirstPlus. This caused a great problem to us as we were no longer in a position to buy a property, our other debts remained outstanding and we finally entered into a Trust Deed.
As you can imagine, we were a bit annoyed with loosing £17K

. Our loan was conducted over the phone and we can not remember if we were charged any
PPI
and we never received a copy of our Credit Agreement to sign and return.
If I applied for a CCA and discovered that the credit agreement wasn't signed, do you think I would have a case against them - Even for the £17K?
Thank you