I'm putting this question in here, as it is vaguely in line with clamping and removal of vehicles.
A bicycle is locked against railings, on private property, without causing an obstruction. There are "official" bicycle stands, although these are all full.
Would the forceable removal of the bicycle, necessitating damaging the lock, constitute criminal damage and theft?
Would the existence of big signs saying "you may not park attach your bicycle to the railings, if you do so it will be removed" confer consent to having the lock damaged?
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