letsgetthisright
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Hello, I like to get as much help/guidance as I can as to where I stand legally on this issue. My default date on a delinquent account was October 2010. In November 2016 I checked my credit file to confirm it had been removed post 6 year anniversary (It had). However when I checked my credit file again in June 2017, I discovered that the same default had been re-registered. The default date had suspiciously changed to September 2011! I wrote a complaint letter to the creditor, and they basically stated that this was the correct default date, and that they could not find any evidence to support my claim that the default date was October 2010. I actually have a credit report, which supports my claim. I raised this with the Financial Ombudsman, provided my supporting evidence. The creditor want to make me a small settlement offer, and basically informed the Ombudsman that they did not know why the default had been re-recorded. They will also removed the default, but say it will take 4-6 week! Legally are they allowed to have re-registered my expired default? Are they breaking the law, such as the Data Protection Act? It seems plain wrong that they can do something like this. Also, should it take 4-6 week to remove a default that should not have been re-registered in the first place? Additional info: I've been repaying my debt over a number of years. Any insight or advice is much appreciated! And thank you in advance.
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