Thank you for all the replies. I was exploring the options, and indeed, on reflection, it seems reasonable to ask for apologies rather than anything else.

A whole postgraduate course portfolio of 80+ pages, 90% of which is verbatim my work. Completion of the course leads to professional qualifications and a pay rise, but the colleague withdrew from the course. We work together, hence colleague.

My colleague submitted my old academic work as their own. The university has confirmed it. The colleague has since withdrew from the course. I am quite upset by what the colleague did. What are my options in terms of civil law to take this further? Not sure if this is the right place to ask... Can't find any plagiarism related forums.

The reason for my absence is anxiety which is work related, this is why I do not want to call. Also, the manager is saying that this is my duty to call in every day. This is not my duty, because it does not say so anywhere in the policies. I agreed, however, to be contacted daily by my line manager (different person) if this is going to make the other manager happy. I also made it clear, that the request is unusual as people in similar circumstances were not asked to make contact. Neither was I when I was off sick before (which was twice in the last three years and for genuine reasons).

Thing is, I don't even need a sick note because it's a four day absence.

This is what I was thinking as well...

I have been bullied at work by a colleague and raised a grievance. The meeting is next week which is making me very anxious and panicky. I signed off for anxiety and stress at work, informing my line manager that I will stay out of work until the meeting, because the stress is affecting my mental health. The absence will be less than five days. My manager's manager insists that I have to call in every day. I checked the Sick Leave Policy and there is only mention of keeping in touch, nothing about a sick employee calling the office every day. Is this allowed?

Thank you all. Yes, it is a desperate LA, indeed. I gather from the link provided by Mr. P. that Royal Mail will keep the letter for 18 days before returning it to the sender. This, plus time allowed for the delivery of a 2nd class letter makes the LA's request to provide documents within a week(!) a tad unrealistic... I will be talking to Royal Mail first thing tomorrow. SiB

Hello all, Local postie has a regular problem with getting into my block of flats as they have no keys and sometimes there is no one in 6 flats to open the door for him. When unable to deliver, local postie writes on the envelope "No Access + date", then redelivers when next able to enter. Royal Mail did not deliver a letter from the council on time to me for the aforementioned reason and due to Christmas time delays, therefore I was unable to provide the documents that the council requested by the deadline and now my benefits have been stopped. I appealed against the decision mentioning how the Royal Mail operated at my address, but the council rejected it saying "it is not the usual procedure how Royal Mail operates". My inkling is that the council employee is making it up, but to be on the safe side - are there any "official procedures" for postmen when unable to access? SiB

Hi all, I am not a temp. I am, indeed, on a fixed-term contract, 6 months long that started in June. I got offered a new post to commence before my current contract expires. I could consider whether I should stay till the end of my contract expire or sign a new (permanent) one that I was offered. I cannot 'just leave' as I would need to give one month notice. This is not the case, because I do not want to leave the employer. I read a bit more and, yes, indeed, I might have been discriminated against under the Fixed-term Employees (Prevention of Less Favourable Treatment) Regulations 2002, because as a fixed-term employee I was not given the same opportunities as a permanent employee of exactly the same grade.

Thank you for your reply. I was not thinking about seeking compensation. I would like to be transferred to the same position but in a different department. My duties in my current role are dramatically different to what I had been doing, I can't keep up emotionally. Thy are risking me going off sick long term for depression (I have a very good attendance record) and I can't see how they would be able to make reasonable adjustments for me. This is all I would be asking for.

Or am I right thinking that as an employee of the same organisation I should have been treated the same as permanent employees, and therefore be given preference exercise as well? If so, what Act will I be quoting?

Hi all, I have been on a temporary contract with my current employer since June 2013. The contract is to expire in December. The employer changed the way we provide the service which involved creating new teams, change of responsibilities and teams for all employees. All permanent employers were offered an opportunity to express 2 preferences which team they want to go. Every staff group (admins, support workers, managers etc) were asked to express their preferences in turn. Temporary workers were not offered the same opportunity. Instead, we were offered internal interviews (if successful, to be upgraded to permanent posts) and then allocated to vacant posts. I expressed my preference during the interview, but was told in feedback that there were no vacancies in this team (which I know is not true as someone is leaving in November) and, subsequently, I was offered a job, which I would never consider applying for if I had a choice. I was very surprised with this choice as there were emails exchanged and discussions on a senior level that I could (not would, though) be allocated to a team of my preference. The job I'm doing now is making me stressed to the point that I had to take two days off. I am meeting a senior manager tomorrow for an informal discussion to talk about who, why, and how it was decided that I would be allocated this vacancy. I am going to tell them that it is making me stressed to the point that I cried first two days at work and I am considering handing in my notice/not signing a new contract after my temporary one :???:expires. My question is - under the 12 week rule, shouldn't the temporary workers be offered equal treatment and therefore the same preference exercise? We were not agency workers, but working for the same employer, but on temporary contracts. Legally, have I got any leg to stand on?

yes, by email.

I have successfully passed a six month probation period in May (and was informed of it by my manager in July) however, I have not yet received my new contract of employment. Does it mean I am still working under the probationary contract? The reason why I'm asking is I was offered a better job and my probationary notice period was (is?) one week, comparing to a 3 month one after probation. I will be asking for the reduction of the notice, but, just in case they say no, can I just say, "but hey I haven't been given my new contract yet, so theoretically I still have one week?" Not sure if relevant, but I work for a local authority.